Haryana HCS 2023 Previous Year Paper

HCS [HARYANA CIVIL SERVICES] PRELIMINARY EXAMINATION QUESTIONS 2023

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding FASTER:

1. It was launched in 2021 by the Supreme Court.
2. It was created for transmission of e-authenticated copies of the judgements/final orders/interim orders to the concerned court/tribunals for due compliance.
3. It aimed at cutting the delay in transmission of the orders passed by the court and consequent delay in the release of the under trial persons, accused person and convicts.
4. It stands for Fast and Safe Transmission of Electronic Records.

Which of the options given above is/are incorrect?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q2. Consider the following statements:

1. Loan Guarantee Scheme for Covid affected sectors (LGSCAS) with a Corpus of Rs. 2,000 crore was launched in 2021 for providing credit guarantee coverage to lending institutes for loans to projects under health care sector.
2. The scheme provides credit guarantee of 50 percent to all greenfield projects and 75 percent to all brownfield projects to be set up at the centres other than metropolitan cities.
3. For aspirational districts, the guarantee cover will be 50 percent for both brownfield expansion & greenfield projects.
4. For aspirational districts the guarantee cover will be 75 percent for both brownfield expansion & greenfield projects.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q3. Agnipath scheme is a recruitment scheme for youth to serve in the armed forces. Which of the following holds true for “Agniveers”, the youth selected under the scheme ?

1. Agniveers will be given an attractive customized monthly package alongwith risk & hardship allowances as applicable in the three services.
2. On completion of their engagement period of five years, they will be paid one time non-contributory Seva Nidhi Package.
3. Seva Nidhi Package is exempt from income tax.
4. Agniveers will be provided non-contributory Life Insurance Cover of Rs. 24 lakh for their duration of their engagement period in the Indian Armed Forces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q4. Electronic Voting Machine (EVMs) and Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) are being used by the Election Commission of India to conduct Elections to the Parliamentary & Assembly Constituencies. Now consider the following statements:

1. EVMs were first used on pilot basis in Thrissur Assembly Constituency of Kerala.
2. EVMs are manufactured by Electronics Corporation of India Limited and Bharat Electronics Limited.
3. VVPATs were used first in by-elections for Khonsa Assembly Constituency of Arunachal Pradesh.
4. VVPAT is an additional unit attached to the EVM, which prints a slip of paper that carries only the serial number and symbol of the candidate voted.

Which of the statements given above is/are not true?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q5. Consider the following statements:

1. Statistics day is celebrated every year on 29th July.
2. National Statistical Commission was set up in 2004.
3. The base year of Consumer Price Index (Rural) is same as that of Consumer Price Index (Urban) i.e. 2012 =100.

Which of the above statements is/are false?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 2 only

(D) 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q6. Match the following schemes/portal of the Government of Haryana:

Choose the correct option from the following options given below:

(A) (1)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

(D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q7. Match the following schemes/yojnas of Government of Haryana:

Choose the correct option from the following options:

(A) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

(C) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

(D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q8. Mukhyamantri Muft Ilaj Yojna, in Haryana includes the following services:

1. Surgeries, laboratory tests, diagnostic (X-Ray, ECG, ultrasound) only.
2. OPD/IPD, Medicines, Referal transport, dental treatment only.
3. OPD/IPD, diagnostics, laboratory tests, surgeries only.
4. Dental treatment, Referral transport, Medicines, OPD/IPD, Surgeries, Laboratory tests, Diagnostics (X-Ray, ECG, ultrasound) only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q9. National Institute of Fashion Technology (NIFT) is associated with which of the following?

1. Project India Size
2. VISION XT
3. COEK
4. CHAMPIONS Portal

Which of the options given above are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q10. Pradhan Mantri Jan Aushadhi Yojna (PMJAY) has been renamed as

1. Pradhan Mantri Aushadhi Pariyojna
2. Pradhan Mantri Janaushadhi Vikas Yojna
3. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana.
4. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Aushadhi Vikas Yojna.

Which of the options given above is correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q11. Which of the following is/are not true regarding the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana (PM- SYM) to ensure old age protection for unorganized workers?

1. Each subscriber shall receive minimum assured pension of Rs. 2,000 per month after attaining the age of 55 years.
2. Each subscriber shall receive minimum assured pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
3. During the receipt of pension, if the subscriber dies, the dependent members of the beneficiary shall be entitled to receive 50 percent of the pension received by beneficiary, as family pension.
4. The subscriber’s contribution to PM-SYM is through auto-debit facility from his/her saving bank account/Jan Dhan Account and it ranges from Rs. 50 to 500 per month depending upon the entry age of the subscriber

Which of the options given above is/are not correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the MusQan initiative:

1. To reduce preventable mortality and morbidity of children below 12 years of age.
2. All pregnant women and sick infants upto 1 year of age attending public health facilities are entitled to free services, drugs and consumables as well as diagnostics services
3. To provide child-friendly services to the new born and children in a humane & supportive environment.
4. It is an intensified programme to bring undiluted focus on promotion of breast feeding and other infant & young child feeding practices.

Which of the options given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q13. Match the following:

Choose the correct option from the following options:

(A) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

(D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q14. Match the following:

Choose the correct option:

(A) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

(D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii) (b), (iv)-(c)

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q15. PM SHRI Schools have the following features

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme under which more than 15000 school will be qualitatively strengthened to include all components of the National Education Policy.
2. Such schools will be developed as Green Schools incorporating environment friendly aspect.
3. PM SHRI Schools will be developed by strengthening the existing schools from amongst schools managed by central government only.
4. PM SHRI Schools will be developed by strengthening the existing school from amongst schools managed by central government/State/U.T. government/local bodies/KVS/NVS.

Which of the options given above is/are correct?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 2, 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q16. Match the following:

Choose the correct option:

(A) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)

(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(a)

(C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)

(D) (i)-(d), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q17. Match List I with List II and choose the correct option:

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-e, 5-d

(B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e

(C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-6

(D) 1-b, 2-d, 3-e, 4-a, 5-c

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q18. Match List I with List II and choose the correct option:

(A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

(B) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

(C) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

(D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q19. Given below are the administrative Divisions of Haryana along with the districts it includes

Which of the above Administrative Divisions are correctly matched?

(A) a and b only

(B) band c only

(C) c and d only

(D) b and d only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q20. Read the following statements about Yadavindra Garden Pinjore, Panchkula and choose the correct options:

1. It was built by Nawab Fidai Khan in the 15th century.
2. The garden is an example of Mughal garden style.
3. It was renovated by the rulers of princely state of Patiala.

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 1 and 3

(D) Only 2

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q21. Match the following as per popular beliefs

Choose the correct option

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

(B) 1-6, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

(C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

(D) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q22. Match column I and column II & choose the correct option in context of Haryana:

Choose the correct option:

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

(B) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

(D) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q23. Given below is a list of districts along with other district’s touching its boundaries :

1. Jind : Hisar, Kaithal, Panipat, Karnal
2. Rohtak : Jind, Charkhi dadrı, Hisar, Rewari
3. Rewari : Mahendergarh, Gurugram, Nuh, Jhajjar
4. Hisar : Bhiwani, Rohtak, Sirsa, Fatehabad

Which of the above is/are correctly matched :

(A) Only 1, 2 and 3

(B) Only 2, 3 and 4

(C) Only 2 and 4

(D) Only 1 and 3

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q24. Which of the following statements with reference to uniform linear motion and uniform circular motion is/ are TRUE?

1. In a uniform linear motion, a body moves in the same direction with a constant speed but in uniform circular motion, the speed of the body remains constant and the direction of the motion changes continuously.
2. In a uniform linear motion, there is instantaneous change in velocity but in uniform circular motion, the velocity remains the same. uniform
3. A uniform linear motion is an accelerated motion but a uniform circular motion is not an accelerated otion is motion.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 2 and 3 only

(B) 3 only

(C) 1 only

(D) 1 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q25. Which of the following statement(s) about the freely falling objects is/are FALSE?

1. Freely falling objects are the objects falling from a height towards the earth under gravitational force of the earth.
2. The acceleration of a body falling freely towards the earth depends on the mass of the body.
3. If an object is dropped freely from a height, its initial velocity ‘u’ is zero and if an object is thrown vertically upwards, its final velocity ‘v’ becomes zero.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q26. Given below are two statements: one is labeled as Assertion A and the other is labeled as Reason R.

Assertion A: When an artificial satellite moves around the earth in a circular orbit with a constant speed, its velocity is not constant because the direction of motion of the satellite is changing continuously.

Reason R: The force of gravity of earth keeps the satellite in circular orbit around it. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(C) A is true but R is false

(D) A is false but R is true

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q27. Which of the following statement(s) about the artificial sweetening agents is/are TRUE?

1. Ortho-sulphobenzimide is the first popular artificial sweetening agent.
2. Ortho-sulphobenzimide is also called as saccharin
3. Ortho-sulphobenzimide is about 100 times as sweet as cane sugar.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q28. Which of the following statements about the types of soaps is/are TRUE?

1. Transparent soaps are made by dissolving the soap in ethanol and then evaporating the excess solvent.
2. Shaving soaps contain fillers like sodium rosinate, sodium silicate, borax and sodium carbonate.
3. Soap chips are made by running a thin sheet of melted soap onto a cool cylinder and scraping off the soaps in small broken pieces.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q29. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(B) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

(C) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q30. Which of the following statements about the Parasite is/are TRUE?

1. Dodder is a plant parasite, which has special sucking roots called haustoria for absorption of food from the host plant.
2. Dodder is a vine-like parasitic plant and is essentially leafless.
3. Many species of Dodder cause weed problems in the horticulture industry.
4. Once the Dodder plant gets attached itself to the host plant it loses its root system.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 2 and 4 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q31. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(B) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q32. Which of the following statements regarding asexual reproductive structures in Fungi and Simple plants is/ are TRUE?

1. Zoospores are flagellated motile spores produced inside a parent cell called zoosporangia.
2. Conidia are non-motile spores produced singly or in chains by constriction at the tip or laterally on special hyphal branches called conidiophores.
3. Gemmules are endogenous bud that are simply a copy of parent nucleus with a small amount of cytoplasm and a protective covering around.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3

(D) 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q33. Which of the following statements regarding Soil is/are FALSE?

1. Fertile soil supports plant growth by providing plants with nutrients, acting as a water holding body and serving as the substrate to which plants anchor their roots.
2. Vegetation, tree cover and forest prevents soil degradation and desertification by stabilizing the soil, maintaining water and nutrient cycling.
3. Grass found on pasture lands cannot protect the soil against soil erosion and also inhibits the soil biological activities.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 2 only

(D) 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q34. Consider the following statements under Article 18 of the Indian Constitution:

1. Any Citizen of India can take any title from any foreign state.
2. In Balaji Raghavan v/s Indian Federation, 1996, the Supreme Court has announced that ‘Padma- Vibhushan’, ‘Padma- Bhushan’ and ‘Padamshree’ is a title but these awards violate “right to equality”.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q35. With reference to Directive Principles of State Policy consider the following statements:

1. The Directive Principles of State Policy of Indian Constitution have been clearly divided into three parts i.e. Socialist, Gandhian and Liberal.
2. Directive principles of State Policy related to co-operative society (under Article 43) of Indian Constitution is taken from Nehru’s objective resolution of 1946.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2

(D) Neither 1 nor 2

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q36. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Article 356, Government could declare a state of emergency on grounds of external threat only.
2. Once a emergency is proclaimed the federal distribution of powers remains practically suspended and all the powers are concentrated in the hands of the union government,
3. The 42nd Amendment was also passed during the emergency.
4. Among the various changes made by 42nd Amendment, in the country was extended from 5 to 7 years. one was s that the duration of the legislatures

Which of the statements given above is correct?

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q37. Arrange the following events performed by the Constituent Assembly in the correct sequence (earliest to latest)

1. Ambedkar’s first speech in the Constituent Assembly.
2. Adopted national flag by Constituent Assembly
3. Approved Commonwealth membership of India
4. Nehru’s Objective Resolution

(A) 1,2,3,4

(B) 1, 4, 3, 2

(C) 4, 1, 2, 3 1,2,3

(D) 3, 4, 1 and 2

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q38. Consider the following pairs:

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(A) Only 1 pair

(B) Only two pairs

(C) Only three pairs

(D) All five pairs

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q39. Consider the following statements regarding the Bill of rights:

1. The “Motilal Nehru Committee presented a bill of rights in 1930.
2. A Bill of rights prohibits government from thus acting against the rights of the individual and ensure a remedy in case there is a violation of these rights.
3. Government cannot put reasonable restrictions on the exercise of our fundamental rights.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 1, 2 and 3

(D) Only 1 and 3

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q40. Consider the following statements:

1. A Bill pending in the legislature of state shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House or Houses thereof.
2. A Bill pending in the legislative council of a state which has been passed by the legislative assembly shall lapse on a dissolution of the assembly. slative as
3. A Bill which is pending in the legislative assembly of a state or which have been passed by the legislative assembly is pending in the legislative council shall not lapse on a dissolution of the assembly

Which of the statements above is/are correct?

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q41. Consider the following statements:

1. A parents or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six to fourteen years.
2. To provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years.
3. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.
4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
5. To provide primary healthcare to the persons below poverty line.

Which of the statements above is/are related to fundamental duties?

(A) 1, 2 and 3 only

(B) 1, 3 and 4 only

(C) 1, 4 and 5 only

(D) 1, 3 and 5 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q42. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: Federalism in India is in recent years moving from cooperative to bargaining federal system.

Reason R: Residuary powers of legislation are lying with the centre.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q43. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Indian National Congress rejected the ‘Cripps Proposal because Congress was not convinced with the dominion status offered by the British.

Statement II: The Muslim League accepted the ‘Cripps Proposal because the indirectly demand of Pakistan was accepted by the proposal.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q44. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Fundamental Rights are non-justiciable in the courts.

Statement II: The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are made justiciable in the courts.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q45. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: ‘The doctrine of basic structure has been propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973.

Statement II: The Indian Parliament has the power to amend the whole Constitution. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q46. Arrange the following movements chronologically (from earliest to latest)

1. Kheda Satyagraha
2. Ahmedabad Satyagraha
3. Rowlatt Act Satyagraha
4. Champaran Satyagraha

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) acbd

(B) cdab

(C) dbac

(D) dacb

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q47. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d, 5-e

(B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-e, 5-a

(C) 1-a, 2-е, 3-b, 4-c, 5-d

(D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b, 5-c

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q48. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-I, b-II, c-III d-IV

(B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

(C) a-III, b-II c-I, d-IV

(D) a-I, b-IV, c-III, d-II

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q49. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-II, b-I, c-IV, d-III

(B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

(C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV

(D) a-II, b-1, c-III, d-IV

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q50. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

(B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

(C) a-III, b-II, c-I d-IV

(D) a-II, b-1, c-III, d-IV

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q51. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

(B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

(C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV

(D) a-II, b-1, c-III, d-IV

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q52. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV

(B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

(C) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV

(D) a-II, b-1, c-III, d-IV

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q53. Match List – I with List – II:

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) a-I, b-V, c-II, d-III, e-IV

(B) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I, V

(C) a-I, b-II, c-III, d-IV, e-V

(D) a-II, b-III, c-I, d-IV, e-V

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q54. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

(B) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(C) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

(D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q55. Given below is a list of prominent Geographers and the countries to which they belong. Identify the pair(s) which is/are wrongly matched.

1. Jean Brunhes – France
2. Muhammad al-Idrisi – England
3. David Harvey – Spain
4. Grehard Schott – Germany

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 4 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q56. Given below are some of the definitions of Human geography as defined by famous geographers. Identify the pair(s) which is/are rightly matched.

1. Human geography is the synthetic study of the relationship between human societies and earth’s surface Friedrich Ratzel
2. Human geography is the study of changing relationship between the unresting man and the unstable earth Ellen Semple
3. Human geography offers a new conception of the inter relationships between earth and human beings – Ellsworth Huntington between earth
4. Human geography may be defined as the study of the nature and distribution of the relationships between geographical environment and human activities and qualities – Paul Vidal de La Blache

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 2 and 4 only

(B) 3 and 4 only

(C) 1 and 2 only

(D) 1 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q57. Arrange the following five zones of the pelagic region of an ocean in the increasing order of its depth from the surface.

1. Mesopelagic
2. Epipelagic
3. Abyssopelagic
4. Bathypelagic
5. Hadopelagic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

(B) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

(C) 1, 2, 5, 3.4

(D) 4, 1, 2, 5, 3

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q58. With reference to the different types of soil found in India, identify the pairs which is/are wrongly matched.

1. Submontane soil – These are formed by the deposition of eroded material and are found in the Tarai region stretching from Jammu and Kashmir to Assam.
2. Karewa soil – These are the lacustrine deposits found in the Kashmir valleys and Bhadarwah Valley.
3. Peaty and Marshy soil – These are typical soils of the monsoon climate by seasonal rainfall and is deficient in organic matter. characterised
4. Laterite soil – These soils are rich in humus and organic matter.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1, 3 and 4 only

(D) 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q59. Which of the following statements with reference to the main cropping seasons in India is/are FALSE?

1. The terms ‘kharif” and ‘rabi originate from Arabic language where Kharif means autumn and Rabi means spring.
2. Kharif crops need cold weather for growth and need less water.
3. Rabi crops generally require more water and are called monsoon crops.
4. Zaid is short cropping season during summer months and mostly seasonal fruits and vegetables are grown in this season

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 4 only

(C) 3 and 4 only

(D) 2 and 3 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q60. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(B) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(D) A-IV, B-IH, C-II, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q61. Which of the following statements with reference to natural resources is/are FALSE?

1. Biotic resources are the resources obtained from biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock etc.
2. The resources which can be reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes are known as non- renewable resources.
3. The resources that occur over a very long geological time and take millions of years in their formation are called renewable resources.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3 only

(C) 1 and 3 only

(D) 2 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q62. Match List I with List II.

(А) А-III, В-I, C-IV, D-II

(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q63. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(C) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q64. Arrange the following elements in the decreasing order of their availability (in terms of percentage by weight) in the Earth’s crust.

1. Silicon
2. Iron
3. Oxygen
4. Sodium

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 2>1>3>4

(B) 3>1>2>4

(C) 1>4>3>2

(D) 4>1>3>2

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q65. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(B) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

(C) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

(D) A-III, В-IV, C-II, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q66. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In 1960s, the Government of India under the then Food and Agriculture Minister Chidambaram Subramaniam, launched the Green Revolution with the help of a geneticist, M.S. Swaminathan.

Statement II: During Green revolution high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of dwarf rice seeds namely Lerma Rojo-64-A and Sonara 64 was introduced in India, which were imported from Japan.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are correct

(B) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q67. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The National Food Security Mission (NFSM) of India was launched in October 2009.

Statement II: The mission was launched with an objective to increase the annual production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes and pulses by 4 million tonnes by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12).

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are correct

(B) Both Statements I and II are incorrect

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q68. German Economist Johann Heinrich von Thunen created one of the first geographical models related to agricultural land use.

Which of the following statements are FALSE with reference to assumptions of Von Thunen’s Location Theory?

1. The isolated state comprises of one market area and an agricultural hinterland.
2. The hinterland ships its surpluses to no other market except the city.
3. There are multiple modes of transport.
4. There is a homogeneous physical environment, including a uniform plain around the city.
5. The hinterland is inhabited by farmers who cannot adjust automatically to the market’s demands. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1, 3 and 5 only

(B) 3 and 5 only

(C) 2 and 4 only

(D) 2, 3 and 5 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q69. Match List I with List II and select the correct option from the given codes.

(A) A-I, B-III, C-IL D-IV

(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

(C) A-III, B-II, CI, D-IV

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q70. Arrange the following Coalfields of India from South to North direction.

1. Singareni coalfield
2. Jhilimili coalfield
3. Giridih coalfield
4. Neyveli coalfield

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1, 4, 2, 3

(B) 4, 2, 1, 3

(C) 4, 1, 2, 3

(D) 2, 1, 3, 4

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q71. Match List I with List II.

(A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

(B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(D) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q72. Match the following

(A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c. 4-d

(B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d

(D) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q73. Which of the following is not an example of Rocks with Phaneritic texture?

(A) Granite

(B) Diorite

(C) Ryolite

(D) Gabbro

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q74. Consider the following statements:

1. Tiber river delta is not an example of cuspate delta.
2. Tiber river enters into Tyrrhenian sea.
3. The Tiber river flows through the city of Rome.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 3 only

(B) 1 only

(C) 2 and 3 only

(D) 1 and 2 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q75. Consider the following statements:

1. The Achaean rock system is the oldest rock system of India.
2. The most common Achaean rock is gneiss.
3. The Dharwar system belongs to the later part of Achaean system.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 and 2 only

(B) 1 and 3 only

(C) All of the above

(D) 1 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q76. What is the correct sequence of the given geographic feature from South to North?

(A) South-Sandwich Trench – Puerto Rico Trench – Japan Trench – Kuril Trench

(B) South-Sandwich Trench – Japan Trench – Puerto Rico Trench – Kuril Trench

(C) Puerto Rico Trench – South Sandwich Trench – Kuril Trench – Japan Trench

(D) South Sandwich Trench – Puerto Rico Trench – Kuril Trench – Japan Trench

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q77. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Arthrashastra is a treatise Chandragupta Maurya. on government and economics ascribed to Kautilya, the chief advisor of

Statement II: By the third century B.C. the economy of North India was predominantly agrarian. Land revenue had become the accepted source of income for the government. Kautilya refers at length to methods of tax collection and related problems. Modifications in land tax appeared to be the direct concern of the king.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both statements I and II are true,

(B) Both statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q78. Statement I: The walls of the Buddhist care Shrines were coverage with murals illustrating Buddhist narratives.

Statement II: A more distant region where this tradition of Indian painting was adopted was Central Asia. Commencing at Baniyan in Afghanistan, and Traversing Central Asia were serious of Buddhist monastries with shrines cut into the hills and covered with murals.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) Both statements I and II are true.

(B) Both statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q79. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: ‘Dhamma’ is the Prakrit form of the Sanskrit word ‘Dharma’, meaning according to the context, the universal law or righteousness or, by Social Extension and Religious order as found in Hindu society.

Statement II: The term ‘Dhamma’ was propogated by Ashoka for Buddhism when he adopted the same and started propogating it.

In the light of the above statenients, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both statements I and II are true

(B) Both statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q80. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The Ulema were Muslim the ologians who provided and interpreted passages from Quran. The Sultan was required to show respect, at least ostensibly, for Islamic institutions and pre-eminently to the ulemas. This involved the granting of endorsement to religious causes and offices to the ulemas, building of mosque etc.

Statement II: The Ulema were concerned only about the religious aspect and had no voice in political matters. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both statements I and II are true.

(B) Both statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q81. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Rowlatt Act came into being during the Non-Cooperation movement. This was designed to take action against the Indians participating in the movements.

Statement II: The Rowlatt bill allowed the judges to try political cases without juries and gave to provincial governments, in addition to centre, the power of interment without trial. It was popularly described as “Na appeal, Na dalil, Na Vakil.”

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both statements I and II are correct.

(B) Both statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q82. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The Europeans denounced the Indian civilization and culture. They described it as backward, backward, uncivilized u and orthodox.

Reason R: In the early 19th century these was been interest in studying the classical language and literature of India. A number of scholars took to Indology and one of them was Maxmuller.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q83. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Indian National Congress was started by A.O Hume under the official direction, guidance and advice of Lord Duffer in, the viceroy.

Reason R: The Indian National Congress was to provide a mild, safe, peaceful and constitutional outlet or safety value for rising discontent among the masses,

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q84. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The ‘Doctrine of Lapse’ formulated by Governor-General Dalhousie disregarded the right of an adopted heir to the throne and the state automatically lapsed into British dominion if the ruler died without any biological natural heir.

Reason R: The Doctrine of Lapse was one part of Dalhousie’s programme of bringing a unified India under strict control by doing away with alternative sovereignties held by Indian rulers and princes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q85. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R :

Assertion A: Daswant painter had committed suicide out of madness.

Reason R: The manuscript of Daswant’s work Khandan-e-Taimuria is preserved in Khuda bakhsh oriented Public Library, Patna.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (B)

Q86. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:

Assertion A: The decline of the Maurya Empire started after Ashoka.

Reason R: Ashoka followed the policy of Dhammavijay and disbanded his army

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q87. Which one of the following throws light on the Lakulisha Pashupat Sect?

1. Coin of Huvishka
2. Mathura inscription of Chandragupta II
3. Maltimadhav of Bhavabhuti
4. Ashtadhyayi of Panini
5. Kadambani of Vanbhatta

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

(A) 1,3,4

(B) 2,3,4

(C) 1,2,5

(D) 1, 2, 4, 5

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q88. Which of the following is/are true about the Virupaksha-Pampadevi of Vijayanagara?

1. Matridevi Pampadevi had done penance to marry Virupaksha.
2. The Vijaynagara rulers claimed to rule on behalf of Pampadevi.
3. The patron deity of the Vijayanagara Kingdom was Virupaksha.
4. Normally, the name of Srivirupaksha was mentioned in the Kannada script in the royal orders.
5. Virupaksha was a form of Vishnu.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) 1,2,3

(B) 2,3,5

(C) 1,3,4

(D) 2,3,4

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q89. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ganesh Shankar Vidyarthi had written in ‘Pratap that “If Maharana Pratap had been in any other country except slave India, you would have been worshipped all over the country. If you were in America like Washington or Lincon, if you were in England like Wellington or Nelson, if you were in France you would be worshipped like Joan of Arc or if you were in Italy you would be worshipped like Mazzini.”

Statement II: Ganesh Shankar Vidyarti used to bring out a magazine named ‘Pratap’ from Rajasthan in 1915.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statements I and II are correct.

(B) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct and but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q90. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: In spite of opposition from Jinnah in 1937-39, the Congress did not stop singing ‘Vande Mataram’ in the Legislative Councils.

Statement II: Sir Syed Ahmed Khan had said that First he fought for Congress, now he will fight against the unity of India.’

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are correct.

(B) Both Statements I and II are incorrect.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q91. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Kanishka built a Stupa and Vihara at Peshawar.

Statement II: In the excavations of Stupas and Viharas of Peshawar, idols of Buddha and Kanishka are found and not of Indra and Brahma.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q92. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Kanchi was the famous city of South India, center of education and capital of Pallavas.

Statement II: Kanchi’s famous scholars Mayuravarma, Vatsyayan, Dingnag and Hien Tsang-were there.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q93. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Aurangzeb had constructed the Kuwait-ul-Islam mosque by demolishing the Chintamani Temple.

Statement II: Qutbuddin Aibak got the Kuwait-ul-Islam mosque built in Delhi.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q94. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The temples of Virupaksha paksha and Pampadevi were built by choosing a beautiful place like Vijaynagara. and

Statement II: The Vijayanagara rulers adopted the earlier traditions, innovated them and developed them further

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) Both Statements I and II are true.

(B) Both Statements I and II are false.

(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q95. Match List – I with List – II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(А) А-ІІ, В-III, C-IV, D-I

(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q96. Match List – I with List – II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

(B) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

(C) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

(D) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (D)

Q97. Statement I: In 1866 Dadabhai Navroji organized the East India Association in London to discuss Indian questions to influence British Public opinion. Branches of the Association were organized in major Indian cities.

Statement II: He showed that the poverty and economic backwardsness of India were not inherent in local conditions but were caused by colonial rule which was draining India of its wealth and capital.

In the light of the above statement, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(A) Both Statements I and II are True.

(B) Both Statements I and II are False.

(C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is False.

(D) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is True.

(E) Question not attempted

Q98. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In a message to the Indian Labour Journal in November 1933, Jawahar Lal Nehru emphasized that both social and national struggles were basic and that in neither should a compromise be made.

Reason R: He urged the working class to play its role in the anti-imperialist struggle.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

(B) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.

(C) A is correct but R is not correct.

(D) A is not correct but R is correct.

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (A)

Q99. Subsidiary alliance was a system devised by Lord Wellesley in 1798. All those who entered into such an alliance with the British had to accept certain terms and conditions.

1. The British would be responsible for protecting their ally from external and internal threats to their power.
2. In the territory of the ally a British armed contingent would be stationed and ally would provide resources for their maintenance.
3. The ally would enter into agreements, with other rulers or engage in warfare only with the permission 3 of the British.
4. Ally may walk away with the alliance anytime at the disagreement.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

(A) 1 only

(B) 1 and 2 only

(C) 1, 2 and 3 only

(D) 2, 3 and 4 only

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)

Q100. Match List I with List II.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(A) A-I. В-ІІ. С-III.D-IV

(B) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

(C) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III,

(D) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

(E) Question not attempted

ANSWER: (C)